Friday, November 18, 2022

MCQ ON STORES SUBJECT

           MCQ STORES 2022

1.     Source of stores supply to Indian railways

(a)  Purchases, 

(b)  Manufactured by Railway Workshop, 

(c)  Returned Stores ; and 

(d)  Transfer of Stores from other Railways or departments. 

(e)    all the above                                        S 301

        2. in the stores branch the tenders in use are

             a. open tender single tender and limited tender

             b. global tender open tender special limited tender and single tender

              c. open tender bulletin tender and single tender

    3. Minima and Maxima.    

a.    Upper and lower limit of stocked stores B. the upper and lower limit of quantity ordered  c. the upper and lower limit of each office d.none of these s124.

4. the purchase policy of IR in accordance with

a. Order of preference

b. Price preference      

c. market price

d. above all

 

5. to encourage local industries IR has

A. price preference

b.  preference to small scale industries

c,  development order to encourage ss units

d. above all

 

6. constitution of tender committee minimum

a.  three  members

b. two members

c. four members

 

7. types of stores contract

a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 7

 

8. Form       is used for sending condemned material to Stored

a)     Issue Ticket, b) DS 8 , c) Requisition d) None of these

9. PL number is used to denote

a)     Stock items, b) Non Stock c) special Purchase

10.The stores Expenditure is charged to Demand No

a)     Demand No 16, b) Demand No c) Demand No 07

11.The chief of stores dept is

a)     CMM, b) COS c)  PCMM

12.Stock items are drawn in form No

a)     Requisition, b) issue ticket c) S 1302 d) S 1313

13.How many stores depots are there in S Rly

a)     30  b) 41 c) 52

14.How many tenders are there in Stores Branch

a)     3, b) 5, c) 7

15.IMMS is

a)     Integrated material Management System b) International Material .Management Software c) Indian railway material management software

16The Stores Tenders are digitized and

a)     Digital tenders b) computerized tender c) eTender

17.stores are debited to

a)     Suspense Head, b) Regular Head c) Revenue Head

18.   Repeat Orders are

a. when more materials are required beyond a contract period 

b. to avoid invitation of fresh tenders

c. when more materials are required during the contract period except LT or ST  S 442

19. True Issue means

a. total requirement

b. the material actually issued

c. ordinary stock

d. actual consumption excludes depot transfers, issues to non-recurring capital works, sales, adjustments and other non-recurring issues .. S608

20. Modes of payment in stores supply are

a. 100 % b. 95% and 90 % c. 90 % 95% and 98 % d. 100%,98% 95% and 90%  S.824.

21. Types of contracts with Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals

a. three b.four c. two d. one

22. The tenders for concrete sleeper are floated by

a. PCE b. DRM c. GM d. RB S. 1041.   

23. the normal contractual period for production of concrete sleepers is

a.1 or 2 years b. three years c. five years d. 5-10 years

24. contracts for concrete sleepers are signed by

a. RB b. Division c. Zone . PCE

25. The Receipt Registers (S. 1219) maintained in the Receipt Section, the Weighment Register (S. 1215) and the delivery sheets of van clerks should be inspected _______by an Accounts Stock Verifier attached to the depot

a. annual b. biannual c. monthly d. biennial  

26. Departmental Stock Verification Sheets are prepared in

a. duplicate b. triplicate c. quadruplicate d. quintuplicate  S 1260

27. The combined Requisition and Issue Notes is prepared in

a. duplicate b. triplicate c. quadruplicate d. sextuplicate S 1316

—Wherever possible, die requisition and the issue note should be combined into the form of "Requisition and Issue Note" shown below:— 

 

 


MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS ON RAILWAY AUDIT

 

                                                                                           MCQ on Railway Audit  

S.No

Multiple Choice Questions

Answer

1.

 

C&AG is stands for ____________

A.    Controller & Auditor General  

B.     Comptroller & Auditor General

C.     Controller & Accountant General D. Comptroller & Accountant General 

B

2.

Audit functions are derived from Articles _______ of Constitution of

India

A.    148 to 151

B.     121 to 124

C.     248 to 251

D.    221 to 224        

 A

3.

Railway Audit is separated from Accounts in the year ______

A.    1924  

B.     1929

C.     1921

D.    1950                                         

 B

4.

Scope and extent of Railway Audit is determined by ________

A.    Member(Finance) 

B.     Chairman, Railway Board

C.     Parliament of India

D.    Comptroller & Auditor General of India         

 D

5.

Audit is a ____________ function in Government of India

A.    Management

B.     Auditing

 C

 

 

C.     Constitutional

D.    Accounting

 

6.

_________ controls Audit functions at Apex level in Railway Board

A.    Dy.C&AG (Railways)

B.     C&AG

C.     Auditor General

D.    Addl. Dy.C&AG (Railways)

A

7.

______________ is the Head of Audit Dept at Zonal Railway level.

A.    Director-General/Principal Director of Audit 

B.     Principal Financial Adviser

C.     Principal Audit Adviser

D.    Chief Auditor 

 A

8.

Which one of these is incorrect

A.    Audit is independent

B.     Presents a free and fair view of events

C.     Constitutional requirement

D.    Ensures check of financial transactions under the supervision of

PFA

 D

9.

Article 148 of the Constitution provides that the C A G shall be appointed by the President under his hand seal and shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the like ground as a ____________.

A.    Judge of the Supreme Court

B.    Governor of the State

C.   Vice President of India

D.   Speaker of the Lok Sabha

 

 

 A

 

10.

Accountancy Audit deals with _________

A.    Check the accuracy, all payments are supported by relevant vouchers.

B.    check that expenditure and receipts are properly classified

C.   to check that expenditure is according to prescribed rules

D.   None of these                                                              

 A

11.

Appropriate audit deals with _________

A.    Check the accuracy, all payments are supported by relevant vouchers.

B.    check that expenditure and receipts are properly classified

C.   to check that expenditure is according to prescribed rules

D.   None of these

B

12.

Administrative audit- to check that expenditure is according to prescribed rules

A.    Check the accuracy, all payments are supported by relevant vouchers.

B.    check that expenditure and receipts are properly classified

C.   to check that expenditure is according to prescribed rules

D.   None of these              

 C

13.

What is the correct order of Audit objections? 

A.    Part II Inspection Report/Audit Notes, Draft Observation Slips, Part I Inspection Report/Audit Notes, Special Letter, Provisional Para, Draft Para, Audit Para

B.     Draft Observation Slips, Part I Inspection Report/Audit Notes, Part II Inspection Report/Audit Notes, Special Letter, Draft Para, Provisional Para, Audit Para

C.     Draft Observation Slips, Part II Inspection Report/Audit Notes, Part I Inspection Report/Audit Notes, Special Letter, Draft Para, Provisional Para, Audit Para

D.    Draft Observation Slips, Draft Para, Part II Inspection

Report/Audit Notes, Part I Inspection Report/Audit Notes,

Special Letter, Provisional Para, Audit Para

 C

 

14.

Prior to the inclusion of Para in the Audit Report, PDA sends ______ to the G.M, endorsing advance copies with connected correspondence simultaneously for the PFA and the respective PHOD

 

A.    Draft Para

B.    Provisional Para C. Audit Para

D. Draft Observation Slip r the FA&CAO and the respective PHOD

 A

15.

Time limit for reply to Draft para is ___________

A.    Eight Weeks

B.     Six Weeks

C.     Four Weeks

D.    Two Weeks

 B

 16

Time limit for reply to Provisional para is ___________

E.     Eight Weeks

F.      Six Weeks

G.    Four Weeks

H.    Two Weeks

D

 17

 Reply to Draft Para must be ________ by PFA.

A.    Concurred

B.     Vetted

C.     Approved 

D.    Sanctioned

 B

 18

 If Audit is not satisfied with the reply furnished by Railway administration, the Draft Para converts into ________.

A.    Provisional Para

B.     Audit Para

C.     Interim Para

D.    Observation Para

 A

 

 19

 If Audit is not satisfied with the reply furnished by Railway administration, the Provisional Para converts into ________. and becomes part of the Annual Report of CAG

A.    Provisional Para

B.     Audit Para

C.     Interim Para

D.    Observation Para

 B

 20

 At ______ stage, responsibility is fixed at the Officers’ level

A.    ATR - Action Taken Report

B.     ATS - Action Taken Statement

C.     ATN - Action Taken Notes

D.    None of these 

 C

 21

PAC obtains personal evidence of ___________in important Audit Paras.

 

A.    Sr. Officers like  GMs, Board members

B.     Dealing staff of the Audit objections C. Dealing Officers of the Audit Objections

D. Branch Officers at Divisional Level

 

 22

 In respect of PAC examining the Government Accounts, the following are the stages in order from beginning to end

A.    ATR - Action Taken Report, ATS - Action Taken Statement, ATN - Action Taken Notes

B.     ATS - Action Taken Statement, ATR - Action Taken Report, ATN - Action Taken Notes

C.     ATR - Action Taken Report, ATN - Action Taken Notes, ATS - Action Taken Statement, 

D.    ATN - Action Taken Notes, ATR - Action Taken Report, ATS -

Action Taken Statement, 

 D

 23

The __________ is the "friend, philosopher and guide of the PAC" while attending the sittings of the Committee and assists it in its deliberations while examining the Government Accounts.

 B

 

A.    Member/Finance

B.     C&AG

C.     Auditor General of India

D.    Chairman, Railway Board & CEO

 

 

 

 

Saturday, April 16, 2022

 Congratulations to the successful aspirants (in the written examination) of the 70% AFA selection in Southern Railway.

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